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“Otherwise they would be unclean”
It just dawned on me that to be unclean is to be unwashed. I wonder if Paul already had infant baptism in view here. Could he be saying, “Your children were already baptized because they have a right to the sacrament. And that right was exercised because one of the child’s parents is a believer,”
T,
Certainly Paul is arguing from the greater (i.e., the more certain) to the lesser (i.e., to the less certain) when argues that 1) we all know that the children of believers are clean, therefore, by analogy, the spouse of a believer is (ritually) clean.
Does that imply that they were already baptized? It may. It’s a very interesting suggestion. It certainly doesn’t fit the Baptist paradigm in which the children of believers are effectively ritually unclean until they prove that they are regenerate and eligible for baptism. I’m confident that Paul did not think that way at all.