This righteousness then, which God communicates to man, and accepts alone, and owns as righteousness, has been revealed, he says, without the law, that is, without the aid of the law; and the law is to be understood as meaning works; for it is not proper to refer this to its teaching, which he immediately adduces as bearing witness to the gratuitous righteousness of faith. Some confine it to ceremonies; but this view I shall presently show to be unsound and frigid. We ought then to know, that the merits of works are excluded. We also see that he blends not works with the mercy of God; but having taken away and wholly removed all confidence in works, he sets up mercy alone.
It is not unknown to me, that Augustine gives a different explanation; for he thinks that the righteousness of God is the grace of regeneration; and this grace he allows to be free, because God renews us, when unworthy, by his Spirit; and from this he excludes the works of the law, that is, those works, by which men of themselves endeavour, without renovation, to render God indebted to them. (Deum promereri—to oblige God.) I also well know, that some new speculators proudly adduce this sentiment, as though it were at this day revealed to them. But that the Apostle includes all works without exception, even those which the Lord produces in his own people, is evident from the context.
John Calvin, Commentary on the Epistle of Paul the Apostle to the Romans, trans. John Owen (Bellingham, WA: Logos Bible Software, 2010), 134.
Which passage is Calvin commenting on? Is this an excerpt taken from his comments in the second chapter of Romans?
Romans 3:21–22.
Thank you for the response Dr. Clark! I’ve had people tell me that the FV is heretical because of their view on a future justification according to works. Isn’t that what’s Witsius is saying here? God will judge us according to inherent righteousness at the final judgement according to Witsius.
Alex,
The FV includes a number of mistakes. Future justification according to works is one of them.
Witsius was not teaching that we shall stand before God, in the judgment, on the basis of our works.
He was distinguishing between two kinds of justification or between justification and vindication. The key is the clause in para. XXV “in this sense…” The Protestant interpretation of James, to which Witsius appealed, is that we are justified, i.e., declared righteous and saved, on the basis of Christ’s inherent righteousness imputed to us. That truth will be illustrated and demonstrated at the last day but we are not re-justified or declared righteous on the basis of our good works at the last day.
This post might help.
Dr. Clark,
Can you please help me understand the difference between FV and Witsius below? Thank you!
Alex Harris
Hi Alex,
There are many great and vital differences between them but perhaps it would improve dialogue if you could tell me what you think the FV is and why this passage is confusing.
Thanks.
Delightful, and happens to clear the way for doing good works, not as necessary to acquire our place in Him, but as co-workers with Him.
The law ‘was added because of transgressions’. It came only to deal with sinners, not to be involved at all with our righteousness (1 Tim 1:9).